Seeking your linguistic intuitions!

Are you a fluent speaker in a language other than English? If so, may I ask for your intuitions on a linguistic matter, please?

In English, if someone says, ‘I injured a leg’, we would take them to mean that they had injured one of their own legs. Similarly, if they say they injured a finger, a toe, an ear, etc. But if they say, ‘I injured a nose’, we would take them to mean that they had injured someone else’s noseā€”not their own. Similarly, for a head, a heart, a chin, etc.

In short, in English, when someone refers to a body part in this way, if the speaker has more than one of the body parts in question, then we take them to mean that it was their own. But if the speaker has only one of those body parts, then we take them to mean that it was someone else’s. (At least, that’s my intuition; if you don’t share it, please post a comment saying so!)

My question is, Does the same apply in other languages? If the sentences in bold above were translated into your language (in the most natural way), would the same principle hold? That is, would ‘an X’ imply ‘my X’ if the speaker has more than more than one X, but ‘someone else’s X’ if the speaker has only one X?

All I need is a Yes or No, but if you would like to add any comments or thoughts, that would be great.

Thanks!